Why is neither [I have met you] nor [I met you] grammatically correct?

anewlearnerguy

New member
Joined
Feb 25, 2024
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Student or Learner
Native Language
Korean
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South Korea
Current Location
UK
I have made up the sentences below.

(1a) I've been very sad about failures after failures. I haven't talked to anyone until I've met you now.
(1b) I've been very sad about failures after failures. I haven't talked to anyone until I met you now.

(2a) I've been very sad about failures after failures. I haven't talked to anyone until I've met you at this party.
(2b) I've been very sad about failures after failures. I haven't talked to anyone until I met you at this party.

Most of my non-native English speaking friends think neither tense of "meet" is correct. They cannot explain why it is wrong. Please tell me why it is grammatically wrong. Thank you very much.
 
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You have used the simple past and present perfect tense with "now" and "at the party". Why don't you use simple present tense "until I meet you"? for the present?

until I've met you now.
until I met you now.
until I've met you at this party.
until I met you at this party.
 
Perhaps:

I've been very sad about having so many setbacks. I haven't talked to anybody about it before I met you.

Also possible:

I never talked to anybody about it before I met you.

Are you practicing using "met"?

I'm not sure what you're working on, but none of those sentences work.
 
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For a start, change ‘failures’ to the singular ‘failure’ every time, and the square brackets in the title to quotation marks.
 
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All four of your sentences are wrong.

I think you probably just mean:

You're the first person I'm telling this to.
You're the first person I've told this to.
I haven't told anyone this before.
I haven't told anyone this until now.


You don't have to say anything about meeting anyone.
 
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