Don't tell anyone your name/Don't tell your name to anyone

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vasea1977

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Hi everyone,

The verb "to tell" can have 2 objects as I understand, just the same as some other verbs including "to give". We can say the following:

a) "She gave me her book." (Verb+Indirect Object+Direct Object) (no "to")
b) "She gave her book to me." (Verb+Direct Object+Indirect Objet) (requires "to")

c) "She told him her address." (Verb+Indirect Object+Direct Object) (no "to")
d) "She told her address to him. (Verb+Direct Object+Indirect Objet) (requires "to")

e) "She never tells anyone her address." (Verb+Indirect Object+Direct Object) (no "to")
f) "She never tells her address to anyone." (Verb+Direct Object+Indirect Objet) (requires "to")

Question:
Are sentences D and F correct? If not please let me know why they are wrong. Sentence F sounds better to me than sentence D although i am trying to use the same structure in both of them. Thank you.
 
Hi everyone,

The verb "to tell" can have 2 objects as I understand, just the same as some other verbs including "to give". We can say the following:

a) "She gave me her book." (Verb+Indirect Object+Direct Object) (no "to")
b) "She gave her book to me." (Verb+Direct Object+Indirect Objet) (requires "to")

c) "She told him her address." (Verb+Indirect Object+Direct Object) (no "to")
d) "She told her address to him. (Verb+Direct Object+Indirect Objet) (requires "to")

e) "She never tells anyone her address." (Verb+Indirect Object+Direct Object) (no "to")
f) "She never tells her address to anyone." (Verb+Direct Object+Indirect Objet) (requires "to")

Question:
Are sentences D and F correct? If not please let me know why they are wrong. Sentence F sounds better to me than sentence D although i am trying to use the same structure in both of them. Thank you.

First of all, I disagree with your terminology (although others will agree with it). In the sentence forms with a "to" prepositional phrases, the Latin dative case is recreated, but they are not real indirect objects. Verbs with a real indirect objects are ditransitive.

Second, at least in AmE, people don't really "tell" people their addresses. They give them. In my view, c, d, e, and f would all be better with "give" instead of tell. The "tell" versions are unnatural, but possible.
 
"not a teacher"

Both sentences are grammatically correct. For verbs like give,sell,send,show,tell,teach... both patterns are correct.
You can use: direct object+to+indirect object or indirect object+direct object
 
"not a teacher"

Both sentences are grammatically correct. For verbs like give,sell,send,show,tell,teach... both patterns are correct.
You can use: direct object+to+indirect object or indirect object+direct object

Is the noun or pronoun that follows 'to" the object of the preposition or the indirect object of the verb?
 
Is the noun or pronoun that follows 'to" the object of the preposition or the indirect object of the verb?

Indirect object of the verb.
 
Grammar isn't everything. A scentence could be grammatically flawless while in the meantime it is unnatural to native speakers' ears.
 
Grammar isn't everything. A scentence could be grammatically flawless while in the meantime it is unnatural to native speakers' ears.

There was nothing wrong with the grammar. The problem was with the analysis. However, if it is unnatural to the ears of native speakers, it is usually wrong. And it's "sentence".
 
"NOT A TEACHER BUT A STUDENT OR LEARNER"

I am glade to know that AmE people do not tell their addresses but give. But people like me in Asia do the both; telling and giving. We usually give addresses to others by telling. I feel that there must have a way to give addresses to someone. Also I feel there are only two ways to give addresses; by telling and by writing. Anyway! What I want say is that I am glad to know that AmE people give their addresses but do not tell.
 
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Originally Posted by MikeNewYork Is the noun or pronoun that follows 'to" the object of the preposition or the indirect object of the verb?
Indirect object of the verb.
No. When the preposition is to or for, the meaning conveyed by preposition + noun may be exactly the same as that of an indirect object, but the noun/pronoun is the object of the preposition.
 
No. When the preposition is to or for, the meaning conveyed by preposition + noun may be exactly the same as that of an indirect object, but the noun/pronoun is the object of the preposition.
So is it true that British people don't "tell" people their addresses either?
 
So is it true that British people don't "tell" people their addresses either?
I didn't say that.

We are more likely to give someone our address, but we can tell them our address. If we use 'tell', we are more likely to tell someone where we live,
 
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