Beginning sentences with e.g.

Let's imagine I was writing an English-grammar book. So, my question is "Would it be permissible for me to begin a my list of examples on some topic with 'e.g.' not after my long article explaining the topic but from a new line, or would it be against all the grammar rules?"

The verb to have cannot be used in the passive voice.
E.g.: 1) The company you are working for is had by me - The company you are working for is owned by me.

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It would be incorrect. Try;

The verb to have HAVE cannot be used in the passive voice, e.g.,

1) The company you are working for is had by me - The company you are working for is owned by me.


(Note that HAVE can be used in the passive in certain senses.)

E.g. is an abbreviation of exempli gratia, a Latin phrase which means for example, so I see no problem in starting a sentence with it. That said, e.g. was more popular when most educated people knew Latin. Nowadays so few people know Latin that I'd recommend sticking to pure English rather than Latin abbreviations. If you don't like "for example" there's always "for instance".

I would not begin any sentence with E.g., For example, or For instance.

5jj said:

I would not begin any sentence with E.g., For example, or For instance.

Click to expand...

Why not?

My 'any sentence' was an overstatement.

I would not start a sentence with any of those 'for example' expressions when what follows is simply a list (including a list of one), for example,


The verb to have HAVE cannot be used in the passive voice, e.g., (X)

a. The company you are working for is had by me. - The company you are working for is owned by me.
b. A good reputation is had by Spong Windows. - Spong Windows has a good reputation


I would begin with one if what follows is an example (or examples) that is a statement or are statements in itself/themselves, for example,

Some modals pattern differently in BrE and AmE. For example, () mustn't is rarely used in BrE to suggest logical deduction; it is commonly used in this way in AmE.

5jj said:

It would be incorrect. Try;

The verb to have HAVE cannot be used in the passive voice, e.g.,

1) The company you are working for is had by me - The company you are working for is owned by me.


(Note that HAVE can be used in the passive in certain senses.)

Click to expand...

Could you please tell me those cases? I'm very curious to know them. I've been thinking we couldn't use to have in the passive voice ever.

Please ask that question in another thread. We don't want this thread to be sidetracked.